Rape and impotence

Here is a new one. A man accused of raping several boys claims that he is innocent because he is impotent:

Neurologist, Dr.Walter Ramsahoye on Wednesday rejected allegations against Muslim Scholar, Neziaam Ali that he sexually molested several boys because he is impotent.

Ramsahoye, who examined the man and perused his medical records, said it would be improper for him to divulge the “multiplicity of illnesses” that afflict the man said to be in his 30s. The doctor, however, insisted that the man could not have committed the acts for which he the Mufti has been accused. […] “To say that he committed those acts is akin to saying that an individual without arms could use a cutlass to attack policemen,” said Ramsahoye in a letter to the media. ““I wish to state publicly that the Muslim Scholar is totally and absolutely innocent and there is no one who can challenge that statement,” he added.

Now, it is possible that Ali is impotent and therefore could not have raped anyone. However, the medical evidence shows that the boys had been anally raped. Of course, a person need not use a penis to rape someone. It is possible to rape someone with an object or a hand. It is possible that Ali may generally be impotent but can sometimes get erections. It is also possible that someone else assaulted the boys.

However, only Ali is charged and at the moment the evidence does not help his case. Saying that he is impotent does not help much because it is not just one boy who says he abused him. Those multiple accounts bring into question his claim of impotent.

Nevertheless, this is the first time I have heard of someone claiming they could not have committed rape because they could not get an erection.

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6 thoughts on “Rape and impotence

  1. It would be interesting to see what the medical examiners in this case have determined constitutes evidence of rape. This can be something of a grey area; not all victims of rape, of any kind, have injuries, and on the other hand some doctors can take an unreasonably broad view of what constitutes evidence of anal rape. Obviously I have no idea whether this man is guilty or innocent, but I would not assume that these boys have been violated based on this very vague reference to medical evidence.

  2. Seanchai, I would imagine that it would be some kind of tearing, bruising, or swelling. Those usually happen with anal sex even if a person is incredibly gentle.

  3. Nevertheless, this is the first time I have heard of someone claiming they could not have committed rape because they could not get an erection.

    Isn’t this why women can’t rape? I’ve heard that particular excuse countless times.

  4. Toysoldier, if there was tearing, bruising, or other actual evidence of rape, fair enough, but you are simply assuming that that’s the sort of evidence that was found. My point was that rape examinations are not necessarily that straightforward and the findings are often open to misinterpretation. There is a whole plethora of injuries and normal physical phenomena which can be wrongly construed as evidence of abuse. This site – http://www.pathguy.com/abuse.htm – provides a comprehensive overview of the kind of evidence I am talking about. Presumably also if he had raped the boys with an object then their testimony would reflect this, and the issue of his impotence would not be very useful as a defence.

  5. There is a whole plethora of injuries and normal physical phenomena which can be wrongly construed as evidence of abuse.

    True, but it is improbable that several different boys who know and spent time with this man would all show such injuries.

    Presumably also if he had raped the boys with an object then their testimony would reflect this, and the issue of his impotence would not be very useful as a defence.

    Since we do not know exactly what occurred, it is difficult to rule that out. It is possible that the boys were blindfolded or simply did not look at what he allegedly did to them.

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